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BTW, the painting of the "Battle of Alexander" that Gordon linked to was probably meant to represent the battle of Issus. Sometimes it gets me wondering about what might have happened if Alexander's troops had really worn all those 16th-century armors!


Conquered the world maybe?

I was told that the Italians were the first who used the cloth bases skirt worn over armour in XV century, and their men at arms continued doing so during the XVI century. Does someone knows about the veracity of this fact?
I thought that French Gendarmes were the only one who used that kind of clothes, but it seems that Italian men-at-arms looked very similar to French Gendarmes. (And English ones too)

Thanks.
Rodolfo Martínez wrote:

I was told that the Italians were the first who used the cloth bases skirt worn over armour in XV century, and their men at arms continued doing so during the XVI century. Does someone knows about the veracity of this fact?
I thought that French Gendarmes were the only one who used that kind of clothes, but it seems that Italian men-at-arms looked very similar to French Gendarmes. (And English ones too)

Thanks.


It was a pretty universal fashion among European Men-at-Arms during the first half of the 16th Century. German, French, Burgundian, Italian, English, Spanish, etc. Even Polish: The Battle of Orsha was fought in 1514 beween the Grand Dutchy of Lithuania and Polish forces against the Muscovites and their Tatar allies, as shown in the painting below:

[ Linked Image ]

It's from this Wikapedia article:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Image:Battle-of-...-09-08.jpg

It actually isn't actually showing the skirted bases on the mounted knights, but it IS showing the tonolets that were often worn by dismounted knights for foot combat. But it's from the same basic fashion concept that the bases were a part of.

Cheers!

Gordon
Thanks for the painting Gordon. Most Museums don´t use to show armours with their respective cloth parts, as skirt bases or whatever. (Some do that, but only if the cloth skirt is under the metal tassets. Maybe to show the art in the fauld)
I was wondering about Men-at-arms weaponry, Is this sword an estoc?, i mean, is accurate to show a Man-at-arms´ armour wielding a zheihander, or other type of mercenary weapon?


Thanks


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Rodolfo Martínez wrote:

I was wondering about Men-at-arms weaponry, Is this sword an estoc?, i mean, is accurate to show a Man-at-arms´ armour wielding a zheihander, or other type of mercenary weapon?
Thanks


The whole fashion of showing a cap-a-pie armour stand with a zweihander schwert is definitely post-period. It MIGHT have started as early as the 18th Century, but the high-point of bizarre combinations of armour and weapons has to be the Victorians. If something didn't fit their pre-conceived Romantic notions, then they invented things to fulfill them. I'd take ANY Victorian illustrations or research with a big dose of salts, preferably an emetic. ;)

The sword shown in the first photo looks to me like a fairly standard heavy, complex-hilted sword common to most heavy cavalry of the late-16th Century/early-17th Century, so it's not TOO far off from the armour it's displayed with.

Cheers!

Gordon
I though that those swords were more for infantry than for heavy cavalry, while longswords were more apropiate swords for heavy cavalrymen than any kind of larger sword.
There are armours shown wielding halbers, maybe Victorian ones. This really confuse people if they are not deep in the subject, like in my case.
But why a Gendarme would use a two handed sword? I mean, imagine a first half XVI century Man-at-arms or Gendarme. Would he use the two handed sword as a foot combat weapon if unhorsed like the poleaxe? Is historically accurate the use of zweihanders between Man-at-arms during the first half of the century?


Thanks

P.D.

Does anybody knows if this sword is an overzised longsword? I was searching in the Cold Steel site but i haven´t found any info.


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The only discordance I notice in the photograph with the suit of armor holding a sword is that the suit looks like something designed for foot combat while the sword is something I'd expect to be used on horseback. So, speaking in strictly chronological terms, the two were probably contemporary to each other. I don't think they would have been used together, though.

And I may be wrong. I tend to observe the developments in the 17th century more than those in the 16th.

As for unhorsed men-at-arms using two-handed swords--the biggest problem is where they would have carried it. If you mean a longsword, of course, it could have been stowed in a scabbard hung from the saddle. But a two-handed sword is...well, bigger.

It still doesn't nail the lid on the coffin, though. If the man-at-arms was left unarmed after the fall of his horse and the first weapon he got was a two-handed sword he picked up from a nearby corpse or wrested away from an enemy officer, he probably would have used it since it's certainly better than going around with no weapons.

Now. The Cold Steel sword. It doesn't seem particularly oversized--I guess it's still well within the size bracket of ordinary longswords. The blade, however, is not what we would conventionally think of as a longsword blade. It has too little taper compared to the illustrations in the 15th-century (and later) longsword manuals and looks mostly like an earlier Type XIIa/XIIIa "war-sword" or "greatsword." It is longsword-sized, but it's not as powerful in the thrust as the later weapons that usually come to mind when we talk of longswords.
Thanks Lafayette.

I was told that French and Burgundian men-at-arms used both styles of armour from XVI century, the smooth Italian, and the German Maximillian. I was wondering, Did British and Spanish men-at-arms still used widelly both styles after the development of Greenwich style and the Spanish one?

Thanks.

P.D.

Do you know if the cloth skirt under the tassets are ¨Bases¨too, or are part of the gabeson?

Thanks


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Obviously. The trade in armor was quite a vigorous one, and I'd find it odd to see an army without a mixture of styles--even among the lower-grade armors.

The pictures. Hm. The first doesn't really look like a waffenrock. I'm tempted to say that it's the usual cloth doublet but I can't be sure without disassembling the armor. The second might be a waffenrock, although I'm accustomed to thinking that the waffenrock was usually made longer than that. The garment in the second photograph, too, looks a bit stiff so it might have been an extension of the arming doublet.

BTW, what exactly do you mean by "base?" I might be a bit clueless here since I don't think I've ever seen such a term in armor terminology. Yet.
Maybe i haven´t written it properly, but as far as i know, bases is that skirt used over the metal fauld by men-at-arms, the waffenrock.

Do you know if there is any armour display wearing those waffenrock image? I have found one here, in the album gallery, but its the armour´s rear, and i have a few ones but are very little and with low definition.

Thanks.
This topic has been completely derailed from the "knight as a combat unit" topic. All these side questions about reproduction swords, pieces of armour, etc, are better suited for their own topics. Please guys, keep things on topic and separate the other discussions to their own topics. This ensures topics remain readable to all and worthwhile over years of being archived on the Web.

For your reference, this topic's original intent was stated at this:

Quote:
I like reading about knights and their battle tactics but i´m not sure when the knight as a combat unit dissapeared. i was told that it was during the XVI century, but i still see battle armours in that century. I was told too that knight is only a title, but I don´t really know wich is the difference between a knight and a nobleman with an armour?
Websites not always help readers.


Thank you.
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